Preparation for candidates sitting:
SCFHS•DHA•DOH•QCHP
Pharmacy Question Bank
1,477 questions•15 mock exams•6 months
Practice with exam-style questions, detailed rationales, timed mock exams, and tracking that shows your weak topics.
- Mapped to the blueprint — Every question sits under an official outline heading — not a scraped MCQ dump.
- A rationale on every answer — Why the key is right, and why each distractor was written to tempt you.
- Timed mock exams — Same clock, same length, same question style as the real sitting.
- One bank, several authorities — Valid preparation for the regulators listed on this page.
2,633 practitioners have studied with this bank
Written as preparation for
Sample questions
Same stem length, same distractor style, same rationale you get inside the bank.
Free — no payment, no account
Read the Pharmacy Question Bank sample questions
1.A 45 year old patient who is known to drink excessively presents in acute alcohol withdrawal. On examination he appears malnourished. He is commenced on diazepam. His BM is 4.2mmol/l. What is the next course of action?
- A.Commence IV ThiamineCorrect
- B.IV magnesium
- C.IM glucagon
- D.Liaison psychiatry
Why: In a malnourished alcoholic, glucose loading can precipitate Wernicke's encephalopathy by exhausting already-depleted thiamine stores. IV thiamine should be given (before or with any glucose) to prevent this. The BM of 4.2 mmol/L is not hypoglycaemic, so glucose/glucagon is unnecessary.
2.Which of the following micro-organisms is generally sensitive to Benzylpenicillin?
- A.Mycoplasma pneumoniae
- B.Streptococcus PneumonaieCorrect
- C.Bordetella pertussis
- D.Legionella pneumophila
Why: Streptococcus pneumoniae remains generally sensitive to benzylpenicillin, which targets cell-wall synthesis in this Gram-positive organism. The atypical pathogens Mycoplasma and Legionella lack a conventional cell wall or are intracellular and are unaffected, and Bordetella pertussis is treated with macrolides.
3.For urethral underactivity, which drug class is clinically most useful?
- A.Topical (vaginal) estrogens
- B.E-?-Adrenergic receptor agonists
- C.Anticholinergics
- D.Dual-reuptake inhibitorsCorrect
Why: Urethral underactivity (stress incontinence due to poor sphincter tone) is best addressed pharmacologically by agents that increase urethral closure pressure; duloxetine, a serotonin-noradrenaline dual-reuptake inhibitor, enhances pudendal nerve activity to the urethral sphincter and is the most clinically useful class. Anticholinergics target overactive (urge) incontinence, not underactivity.
4.Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of hypothyroidism
- A.Pituitary failure
- B.Over-treatment with thionamides
- C.Hashimoto's thyroiditis
- D.Beta-blocker therapyCorrect
Why: Beta-blocker therapy does not cause hypothyroidism (though propranolol can blunt peripheral T4-to-T3 conversion, it does not impair gland function). Pituitary failure (low TSH), excess thionamides, and Hashimoto's autoimmune thyroiditis are all genuine causes of hypothyroidism.
5.Appropriate antibiotic treatment for the breast-feeding woman with mastitis is:
- A.Dicloxacillin 250 mg orally every 6 hours for 5 days
- B.Vancomycin 1 g orally every 12 hours for 7 days
- C.Cephalexin 500 mg orally every 6 hours for 14 daysCorrect
- D.Amoxicillin 500 mg orally 3 times a day for 10 days
Why: Lactational mastitis is most often caused by Staphylococcus aureus; a beta-lactamase-stable agent is needed. Cephalexin is effective, safe in breastfeeding, and given for an adequate course. Plain amoxicillin is degraded by staphylococcal beta-lactamase, and oral vancomycin is not systemically absorbed.
6.The least accurate method for measuring GFR is:
- A.Inulin clearance
- B.Iohexol clearance
- C.Creatinine clearanceCorrect
- D.Iothalamate clearance
Why: Creatinine clearance overestimates true GFR because creatinine is both filtered and actively secreted by the tubules, making it the least accurate of the listed methods. Inulin clearance is the gold standard, and iohexol/iothalamate clearances are highly accurate filtration markers.
7.Which of the following dopamine agonists would be an appropriate choice for a patient trying to conceive?
- A.BromocriptineCorrect
- B.Cabergoline
- C.Pramipexole
- D.Pergolide
Why: Bromocriptine has the most extensive safety data in pregnancy and is the preferred dopamine agonist for women trying to conceive (e.g., for prolactinoma-related infertility). Cabergoline is also used but has less reproductive safety data, while pramipexole and pergolide are not indicated in this setting.
8.A patient is found to have a broad complex tachycardia. Which of the following is contraindicated?
- A.Lidnocaine
- B.Adenosine
- C.VerapamiCorrect
- D.Amiodarone
Why: In broad-complex tachycardia that may be ventricular tachycardia, verapamil is contraindicated because its negative inotropic and vasodilator effects can precipitate haemodynamic collapse or accelerate the rhythm. Amiodarone and lidocaine are appropriate, and adenosine is generally safe diagnostically.
9.The most effective treatment to alleviate postmenopausal vasomotor symptoms (hot flushes and night sweats) is:
- A.Testosterone therapyCorrect
- B.Estrogen therapy
- C.Clonidine
- D.Selective estrogen-receptor modulators (SERMs)
Why: Systemic estrogen therapy is the single most effective treatment for postmenopausal vasomotor symptoms such as hot flushes and night sweats. Clonidine and SERMs are far less effective alternatives, and testosterone is not indicated for vasomotor symptoms. [REVIEW: keyed answer may be incorrect — the standard answer for most effective relief of hot flushes is estrogen (b), not testosterone (a).]
10.What is the best treatment for severe agitation in an elderly patient overnight?
- A.Doxylamine
- B.Chlorpromazine
- C.HaloperidolCorrect
- D.Temazepam
Why: Haloperidol, a high-potency antipsychotic, is the preferred agent for acute severe agitation/delirium in the elderly because it causes minimal sedation, hypotension, and anticholinergic burden compared with alternatives. Benzodiazepines and chlorpromazine increase confusion and fall risk in this population.
Why candidates choose this bank
Written like the exam
Single-best-answer items in the exam's own phrasing and length — clinical vignette first, then the lead-in question.
Rationales, not answer keys
Each explanation says why the key is correct and why the other options were built to look correct.
Full-length timed papers
Complete papers under the real clock, scored by topic so you can see where the marks leaked.
Weak-topic tracking
Your dashboard ranks topics by accuracy and pushes the weakest ones back into your next session.
Updated with the blueprint
When the authority revises the outline, the bank is revised. Updates are free for your whole term.
Built for gaps in the day
Works on phone, tablet and desktop; progress syncs, so ten minutes between patients still counts.
Available exams
15 timed mock exams
60 minutes each • 70% target score
| Mock | Questions | Time | |
|---|---|---|---|
| Quiz 1Free sample — 10 questions | 100 | 60 min | See sample questions |
| Quiz 2 | 100 | 60 min | Included with full access |
| Quiz 3 | 100 | 60 min | Included with full access |
| Quiz 4 | 100 | 60 min | Included with full access |
| Quiz 5 | 100 | 60 min | Included with full access |
| Quiz 6 | 100 | 60 min | Included with full access |
Your 4-step preparation plan
Subscribe
One payment, account live in under a minute.
Sit a baseline mock
A timed paper on day one. You need a real score before you build a plan.
Drill your weak topics
Work the lowest-scoring topics until they move.
Rehearse the real thing
A full timed mock in the final week, so exam-day pressure is already familiar.
Frequently asked questions
Your exam date is already set. Your preparation should be too.
Start on the free questions above, or take the full bank today.